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The Salesforce CRT-450 exam is divided into several sections, each covering a different aspect of custom application development on the Salesforce platform. These sections include Apex, Visualforce, data modeling and management, application design, and the Salesforce development lifecycle. Candidates must demonstrate their ability to develop custom applications using these tools and methodologies and apply best practices to ensure optimal performance and scalability.

Salesforce CRT-450 exam is a prerequisite for advanced certifications such as the Salesforce Certified Platform Developer II and the Salesforce Certified Technical Architect. Salesforce Certified Platform Developer I certification is also a requirement for certain job roles, including Salesforce Developer and Salesforce Administrator. With the increasing demand for Salesforce professionals, obtaining the CRT-450 Certification can significantly enhance an individual's career prospects and earning potential.

Salesforce CRT-450 certification exam covers a broad range of topics, including Apex syntax and development, debugging and testing, Visualforce pages and components, security and data access, and so on. CRT-450 exam is designed to assess the developer's ability to design, build, and deploy custom applications that are scalable, maintainable, and secure. CRT-450 exam is administered online and consists of 60 multiple-choice questions to be completed within 105 minutes. Candidates must score at least 65% to pass the exam and earn the certification.

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Salesforce Certified Platform Developer I Sample Questions (Q84-Q89):

NEW QUESTION # 84
Assuming that naze is 8 String obtained by an <apex:inpotText> tag on 8 Visualforce page, which two SOQL queries performed are safe from SOQL injection?
'Choose 2 answers
A)

B)

C)

D)

A. Option C
B. Option A
C. Option D
D. Option B

Answer: A,C

NEW QUESTION # 85
In which three areas can a Lightning component be used in the Lightning Experience? (Choose three.)

A. Lightning Record Page
B. Lightning Community Page
C. Lightning Connect page
D. Lightning Home page
E. Lightning Report page

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:
Explanation

NEW QUESTION # 86
What are two benefits of using External IDs?
Choose 2 answers

A. An External ID can be used with Salesforce Mobile to make external data visible.
B. An External ID is indexed and can improve the performance of SOQl quenes.
C. An External ID field can be used Co reference an ID from another external system.
D. An External ID can be a formula field to help create a unique key from two fields in Salesforce.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
External IDs are useful for data integration and synchronization between Salesforce and other external platforms. By mapping records based on the External ID, you can easily import, update, or upsert data from external sources without relying on the Salesforce record ID. External IDs are also indexed, which means they can speed up the SOQL queries that use them as filters or join conditions. References: External ID in Salesforce: Everything You Need To Know, Relating Records by Using an External ID, Certification - Platform Developer I - Trailhead

NEW QUESTION # 87
Which three process automations can immediately send an email notification to the owner of an Opportunity when its Amount is changed to be greater than $10,000? Choose 3 answers

A. Workflow Rule (Missed)
B. Escalation Rule
C. Approval Process (Missed)
D. Flow Builder
E. Process Builder (Missed)

Answer: A,C,E

NEW QUESTION # 88
Which two are phases in the Aura application event propagation framework?
Choose 2 answers

A. Default
B. Bubble
C. Control
D. Emit

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
In the Aura framework, application events propagate through the component hierarchy in specific phases. The two main phases are:
Option A: Bubble
Correct Phase.
In the bubble phase, the event propagates upward from the source component to the root component.
Components can handle the event during this phase by registering an event handler with phase="bubble".
The default phase occurs after the capture and bubble phases.
It's used for default processing that occurs unless the event is stopped during the earlier phases.
Handlers registered without specifying a phase default to this phase.
There is no 'Control' phase in the Aura event propagation framework.
Option D: Emit
Not a Phase.
'Emit' refers to the action of firing or dispatching an event.
It is not a phase in the event propagation process.
Conclusion:
The two phases in the Aura application event propagation framework are Bubble (Option A) and Default (Option C).
Understanding these phases is essential for managing event handling in Aura components.
Reference:
Event Propagation Phases
Option C: Default
Correct Phase.
Event Propagation Phases
Options Not Accurate:
Option B: Control
Incorrect.

NEW QUESTION # 89
......

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